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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q39-Q44):

NEW QUESTION # 39
What is the difference between sinking funds and purchase funds concerning the redemption of bonds poor to maturity?

A. Sinking funds have mandated redemptions while purchase funds can redeem only upon certain market conditions.
B. Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price while purchase runes do not have such a requirement.
C. Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds Involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed.
D. Sinking funds can redeem fie bones any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule.

Answer: A

Explanation:
* Sinking fundsrequire the issuer to redeem a specified portion of the bond issue at regular intervals. This ensures systematic debt reduction and is mandated regardless of market conditions.
* Purchase funds, however, allow the issuer to buy back bonds only if they are available in the market at or below a stipulated price, making redemption conditional on market conditions.
* B. Sinking funds can redeem bonds only if they trade below a stipulated price: This applies to purchase funds, not sinking funds.
* C. Sinking funds involve the issuer determining when bonds are redeemed while purchase funds involve the investor determining when the bonds are redeemed: Investors have no role in determining bond redemption under either method.
* D. Sinking funds can redeem the bonds any time while purchase funds follow a prearranged schedule:
Sinking funds follow a schedule, and purchase funds rely on market conditions.

NEW QUESTION # 40
What responsibility falls on the buy-side portfolio manager?

A. To provide pertinent market information to the departmentheads of various asset classes.
B. To maintain constant contact with the investment dealer counterparties.
C. To busy securities in the market on demand to maintain liquidity in a security.
D. To inform the trade about the market conditions and risks.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Thebuy-side portfolio manageris responsible for managing investments on behalf of institutional or retail clients. A critical responsibility is to provide the buy-side trader withpertinent market information and analysis of risksto ensure that trades are executed effectively and aligned with the investment strategy.
* Explanation of Options:
* A. Maintain Liquidity: Incorrect. This is more relevant to market makers or sell-side dealers who provide liquidity in the market.
* B. Contact with Dealers: Incorrect. While buy-side managers interact with dealers, their primary role is to strategize, not to maintain constant contact.
* C. Informing Traders: Correct. Buy-side managers analyze risks and market conditions and pass this information to traders for execution.
* D. Provide Information to Department Heads: Incorrect. This is not a core responsibility of buy- side portfolio managers.
References:
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: Responsibilities of buy-side portfolio managers and their interactions with traders.

NEW QUESTION # 41
Which asset type is classified as a fixed-income asset for portfolio management purposes?

A. Bonds with a maturity of one year or less.
B. Money market securities
C. Convertible bonds.
D. Preferred shares.

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Fixed-income assets are characterized by predictable cash flows. Convertible bonds qualify because they have features of fixed-income securities (coupon payments and principal repayment) while also offering the option to convert into equity.
* Money market securities (Option A) are short-term, high-liquidity instruments and typically not classified as fixed-income for long-term portfolio management purposes.
* Preferred shares (Option B) are equity-like instruments with fixed dividend payments but lack the
"fixed-income" designation for portfolio management.
* Bonds with less than one year to maturity (Option D) fall under money market classifications rather than fixed income.
References: Canadian Securities Course Volume 2, Fixed-Income Securities Section.

NEW QUESTION # 42
A shareholder receive rights from a company through direct ownership in shares. Not expecting to exercise them, she sells the right on the relevant exchange. What is her capital gain?

A. The sale price of the rights.
B. The current price of the shares less the sale price of the rights.
C. The current share price less the exercise price of the rights.
D. The sales price less the exercise price of the rights.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When a shareholder sells rights on the exchange, the proceeds of the sale represent the capital gain. Rights provide shareholders with the opportunity to purchase additional shares of acompany at a discounted price. If a shareholder chooses not to exercise these rights and instead sells them on the secondary market, the value they receive from the sale constitutes their capital gain.
* Rights Offering:
* A rights offering allows existing shareholders to purchase additional shares at a set price (exercise price) within a specific period.
* Shareholders can either exercise these rights or sell them on the market.
* Capital Gain Calculation:
* The capital gain from selling the rights equals the sale price. This is because the rights themselves were issued at no cost to the shareholder.
* The exercise price is irrelevant to the calculation as the rights were not exercised.
* Tax Implications:
* The gain from the sale of rights is treated as a capital gain for tax purposes. Only 50% of the capital gain is taxable under Canadian taxation rules.
* Since the shareholder did not exercise the rights but sold them, the capital gain is the sale price of the rights. Subtracting the exercise price or using the share price is unnecessary and incorrect for this scenario.
Key Concepts:Why Option A Is Correct:References from CSC Study Materials:
* Volume 2, Chapter 24: "Canadian Taxation," Section on Capital Gains and Losses.

NEW QUESTION # 43
Which type of trader specializes in managing block trades on behalf of institution clients?

A. Responsible designated trader.
B. Agency trader
C. Liability trader
D. Market maker

Answer: B

Explanation:
An agency trader specializes in executing large block trades for institutional clients without taking ownership of the securities. Their role is critical in facilitating liquidity and minimizing market impact during the execution of trades.
* Managing Block Trades:
* Agency traders handle large transactions on behalf of institutions like pension funds or mutual funds, ensuring the trades are completed efficiently.
* They do not use the firm's capital; instead, they act as intermediaries between the buyer and seller.
* Minimizing Market Impact:
* Large trades can significantly impact stock prices if not executed strategically. Agency traders use methods like algorithmic trading or dark pools to mitigate this impact.
* Role vs. Other Traders:
* Liability Trader: Trades using the firm's capital, assuming the risk of the position.
* Market Maker: Provides liquidity by quoting buy and sell prices.
* Responsible Designated Trader: Oversees order flow for specific securities on the exchange.
* The question specifies managing block trades for institutional clients. This matches the role of agency traders, as they focus on executing trades on behalf of clients without taking positions themselves.
Key Responsibilities of Agency Traders:Why Option B Is Correct:References from CSC Study Materials:
* Volume 2, Chapter 27: "Working with the Institutional Client," Section on Roles and Responsibilities in the Institutional Market.

NEW QUESTION # 44
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CSI CSC2 Guaranteed Questions Answers - CSC2 Latest Dumps Sheet

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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q39-Q44):

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